Q: My ex-husband purchased a home during the time of our marriage four years ago. He didn’t put my name on the loan or title. It has now been two years since our divorce and he says he may need my signature to sell the property in Pennsylvania. Do I have any legal requirement to sign this? I have had nothing to do with the property. I was not involved with the purchase and my name is not on any purchase or loan documents.

A:  As the home was purchased during the marriage, you obtained rights in the home through the PA Divorce Code. It is common for a spouse to have to “sign off” his or her rights under the PA Divorce Code in these situations.